Showing posts with label measurement. Show all posts
Showing posts with label measurement. Show all posts

Systems and sub-systems, the tensor product, quantum entanglement

What if we want to describe probabilities relating to multiple objects -- a system of objects?

You might think it's sufficient to just write down the state vector of each individual object -- but this doesn't really tell us the entire picture. Suppose for example we're considering the state of Schrodinger's cat, less popularly known as Schrodinger's cuckoo, where the box contains TNT and the cuckoo bird. The state of the TNT is $|\mathrm{unexploded}\rangle+|\mathrm{exploded}\rangle$ and the state of the cuckoo is $|\mathrm{alive}\rangle+|\mathrm{dead}\rangle$ -- right?

If I'm in charge of the box, the state of the cuckoo will definitely be $|\mathrm{dead}\rangle$ even if the state of the TNT is $|\mathrm{unexploded}\rangle$

Not exactly. There is a correlation between the state of the TNT and the state of the cuckoo that goes missing here -- the cuckoo is dead if and only if the TNT has exploded, and the cuckoo is alive if and only if the TNT is unexploded. In fact, defining the state vectors separately doesn't really make any sense -- we're just assigning the coefficients based on overall probabilities, and as we will see, this is really mixing up quantum and classical probabilities in a certain way whereas the state vector is supposed to only show quantum probabilities.

Well, this is really the same question as what we do when we have multiple correlated random variables in statistics -- we define a "joint" probability function on a "joint" phase space that is the Cartesian product of the original phase spaces.

You may be inclined to claim that similarly, our new Hilbert space should be the Cartesian product of the original Hilbert spaces. But Hilbert spaces are different in a fundamental sense from these phase spaces -- every point on the classical phase space is an independent state in the Hilbert space -- and general vectors are distributions on the classical phase space. So like how the cardinalities of the classical phases are multiplied, the dimensions of the Hilbert spaces are multiplied.

The reason that we sometimes draw an analogy between the classical state space and the quantum state space is that the state vectors are really the "real objects" in quantum mechanics, and the Hilbert space shows the possible configurations of the state in this sense.

The product we want of Hilbert spaces -- which is not the Cartesian product -- is called a tensor product of linear spaces -- given an orthogonal basis $(|\phi_1\rangle,|\phi_2\rangle,\ldots)$ for the first Hilbert space and $(|\psi_1\rangle,|\psi_2\rangle,\ldots)$ for the second, their tensor product is spanned by new vectors which we denote as

$$\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}{c}}{|{\phi_1}\rangle  \boxtimes |{\psi_1}\rangle ,|{\phi_1}\rangle  \boxtimes |{\psi_2}\rangle ,...,}\\{|{\phi_2}\rangle  \boxtimes |{\psi_1}\rangle ,|{\phi_2}\rangle  \boxtimes |{\psi_2}\rangle ,...,}\\ \vdots \end{array}} \right)$$
We're using $\boxtimes$ instead of $\otimes$ in the above enumeration of the basis, because we haven't yet defined the tensor product of states. The idea is that $|\phi_i\rangle\boxtimes|\psi_j\rangle$ are just placeholders, and we will shortly state that they are/can be the tensor product $|\phi_i\rangle\otimes|\psi_j\rangle$, which we will define now.

Certainly, this can represent any possible state in which the combined system of two objects can be in. What we need is a way to express the state of a combined system of two independent things in this "larger" Hilbert space -- i.e. a map from $H_1\times H_2\to H_1\otimes H_2$ that takes the (pure) states of two independent objects in $H_1$ and $H_2$ and outputs their state as a combined system in $H_1\otimes H_2$ -- we will call this product the tensor product of vectors, and denote it by the same symbol $\otimes$.

OK, so what's the map? Certainly, $|\phi_i\rangle\otimes|\psi_j\rangle$ must form an orthogonal basis for $H_1\otimes H_2$ (why? think about this for a while -- they're clearly orthogonal, as they are mutually exclusive -- you can't be in "$|\phi_i\rangle$ and $|\psi_j\rangle$" and "$|\phi_{i'}\rangle$ and $|\psi_{j'}\rangle$" unless $(i,j)=(i',j')$; spanning is proven similarly, as considering the $|\phi_i\rangle$s and $|\psi_j\rangle$s as eigenstates of some operators $X$ and $Y$ on $H_1$ and $H_2$, then if one performs the operation of "observing $X$ and $Y$" -- and we can do this because the objects are independent -- then because the objects must be found in one of $|\phi_i\rangle$ and one of $|\psi_j\rangle$, the system must be found in one of $|\phi_i\rangle\otimes|\psi_j\rangle$ -- thus its original state was a linear combination of such states).

OK, so

$$
(p_1|\phi_1\rangle+p_2|\phi_2\rangle+\ldots)\otimes(q_1|\psi_1\rangle+q_2|\psi_2\rangle+\ldots)\\
\begin{align}
=\ & r_{11}|\phi_1\rangle\otimes|\psi_1\rangle + r_{12}|\phi_1\rangle\otimes|\psi_2\rangle+\ldots+\\
&r_{21}|\phi_2\rangle\otimes|\psi_1\rangle + r_{22}|\phi_2\rangle\otimes|\psi_2\rangle+\ldots+\\
& \vdots
\end{align}$$
What are the coefficients $r_{ij}$?

Well, it's fairly obvious that $|r_{ij}|^2=|p_{i}|^2|q_{j}|^2$ -- that the probabilities are multiplicative, this is tautological given what we want our product to represent -- the probability that the system is found in the state $|\phi_i\rangle\otimes|\psi_j\rangle$ is the probability that the objects are found in states $|\phi_i\rangle$ and $|\psi_j\rangle$, which is the product of the respective probabilities, as they are independent objects.

Is it also true that the probability amplitudes are multiplicative, i.e. $r_{ij}=p_iq_j$?

This may seem hard to prove, but the idea is quite simple: suppose we observe the state with the observables $X$ and $Y$, and find it in the state $|\phi_i\rangle\otimes|\psi_j\rangle$. Well, then if $r_{ij}=u_{ij}|r_{ij}|$ for some unit complex number $u_{ij}$, then from the right-hand-side, we must have collapsed to $u_{ij}|\phi_i\rangle\otimes|\psi_j\rangle$. So we must have $u_{ij}=1$.

So indeed the product we're looking for is exactly the tensor product from tensor algebra.

Here's a thing worth noting -- we've been referring to "systems" and "objects" as if they are somehow completely distinct things. But are they? The cat's state is itself a tensor product of a massive number of different states belonging to each elementary particle in its body, and lives already in a massive Hilbert space, because the "object" is itself a system. We will use the term subsystem instead of object from now.



Alright: so we now know that elements of the tensored Hilbert space are all states, and only the ones that are factorable into an element of $H_1$ and $H_2$ represent subsystems that are independent. This is precisely how only factorable probability mass/density functions represent independent variables in statistics. Otherwise the variables are correlated -- not necessarily linearly correlated, but correlated.

Such correlations can, of course, exist in our quantum mechanical theory, too -- like the cuckoo-TNT system we mentioned earlier. These are called quantum correlations or quantum entanglement.

Why the fancy name? Because its consequences may seem superficially kinda "surprising". It's also a demonstration of quantum mechanics being different from classical mechanics, because without entangled states, the dimension of $H_1\otimes H_2$ would indeed be the sum of those of $H_1$ and $H_2$ rather than their product, like with phase spaces in classical mechanics.

OK, what kind of surprising consequences?

They're basically all of the following nature: suppose we have a state given by:

$$\frac1{\sqrt2} (|\phi\rangle\otimes|\psi\rangle+|\psi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle)$$
I.e. two entangled particles where we know that they are in two distinct states, but we don't know which is which. Such a state can certainly be produced -- how? Just put two identical independent particles in a box then do a "partial" measurement -- a "peek" -- (which can be achieved, e.g. by some logic gates) that checks if they're in the same state or not, and uncovers no other information.


Now separate the particles spatially -- there's nothing wrong with this, they're still a system, which still has a state -- and give one to Alice and the other to Bob. Now if Bob looks at his particle and sees it in $|\psi\rangle$, he immediately knows that Alice could only observe her particle to be in state $|\phi\rangle$ -- there's nothing Alice can do to change this outcome.


(you may worry that spatially separating the particles alters the state in some important way -- but it doesn't: the states $|\phi\rangle$ and $|\psi\rangle$ are both transformed individually that doesn't change the entangled structure of the combined state -- make sure this makes sense to you. But if it makes you happy, you could imagine the particles were already spatially separated when they were first entangled.)

OK, perhaps you don't find this particularly surprising or unintuitive -- I don't either. But perhaps you do -- perhaps you think there's a violation of locality -- and the reason you do is because you haven't yet fully accepted logical positivism. Let's consider what locality entails for each observer in the set-up, and see if it's violated:
  • Alice: From Alice's perspective, Bob opening his box is just another way to observe her particle -- or rather, she can observe Bob's brain that contains the information, which collapses the state from her perspective. But this is perfectly local -- it takes time for information to propagate from Bob to her. Alternatively, if she doesn't observe Bob's brain and just observes her own box later, that's when her state collapses to $|\phi\rangle$, and she then learns that Bob had collapsed his state into $|\psi\rangle$ -- but as Bob cannot choose what his state vector  collapses to, so he can't send her any information through entanglement. Even if there were a large number of entangled systems this way, the distribution of the states Alice can observe is the same whether or not Bob has collapsed his states (you can confirm this -- this is an idea called the no-communication theorem which we will discuss later in more mathematical detail).
  • Bob: Certainly, Bob acquires knowledge of something far away, but no information actually propagated from Alice to him -- he just observed his own box.
  • another observer: Charlie, who stands somewhere between Alice and Bob, too takes time to observe Bob's brain.
So there really isn't a violation of locality. This isn't surprising at all -- certainly one could have classical correlations too. You could just juggle two distinct particles in a box and give them to each person, and Bob discovering his particle allows him to determine Alice's particle. 

The difference between the classical case and the quantum case is that in the classical case you could pretend that there's some hidden truth that is just not known to the observers. Quantum mechanics forbids any such hidden truth (as confirmed by commutator relations), and forces you to accept logical positivism, and there cannot be a "universal observer" as such a notion is inherently non-local. But the fact that correlation isn't non-local doesn't depend on whether you have metaphysical notions of hidden truths in classical physics -- it is a physical question, and is the same in the classical and quantum cases.



Are we done writing down our algebra of tensor products? We still haven't discussed how inner products and projections of tensor products behave. The basic question is "how do we upgrade/combine operators from $H_1$ and $H_2$ to $H_1\otimes H_2$? Let's start with the simple case of a factorable state in the form $|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle$. Suppose we apply a projection operator $X$ on the first particle. Have we made any observation on the second state? No -- just an identity projection. Or we could make an observation, a projection $Y$. So we can say that for the combined observation $X\otimes Y$,

$$(X\otimes Y)(|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle)=(X|\phi\rangle)\otimes(Y|\varphi\rangle)$$
And an upgrade from $H_1$ to $H_1\otimes H_2$ is just tensoring with the identity $X\otimes 1$.

But the full range of operators on $H_1\otimes H_2$ is a lot more complicated. We could consider entangled states. We could consider operators that are entangled ("partial measurement" operators like we described -- think about what these are). How would measurements on linear combinations of states look like (we know they should apply linearly, but let's show that)?

Suppose we have a state in the form $\frac1{\sqrt2}|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle+\frac1{\sqrt2}|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle$. What exactly is this? We had two independent subsystems each in state $\frac1{\sqrt2}|\phi\rangle+\frac1{\sqrt2}|\varphi\rangle$, then we made an observation that showed they were in two distinct states -- we don't know which is in which. Now we make an observation and collapse the first subsystem to $|\chi\rangle$.

How does this alter the state of sub-system 2?

OK, so "was" (quotation marks! quotation marks!) the system in $|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle$ or $|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle$? This is a question for Bayes' theorem.


The above diagram is for illustration only. There is no real hidden truth (as we will see a few articles from now) of whether the state was initially $|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle$ or otherwise. But the probabilities still obey all the standard laws, such as Bayes's theorem, so tree diagrams make sense to illustrate this.

So the "probability that the system was in $|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle$" (quotation marks! quotation marks!) is:

$$\frac{\frac12|\langle\chi|\phi\rangle|^2}{\frac12|\langle\chi|\phi\rangle|^2 + \frac12|\langle\chi|\varphi\rangle|^2}$$
(which if $\langle\phi|\varphi\rangle=0$ is just $|\langle\chi|\phi\rangle|^2$) And analogously for the other possibility. So the collapse of sub-system 1 to $|\chi\rangle$ collapses the entire state to

$$|\chi\rangle\otimes\left(\frac1{\sqrt2}\langle\chi|\phi\rangle\cdot|\varphi\rangle+\frac1{\sqrt2}\langle\chi|\varphi\rangle\cdot|\phi\rangle\right)$$
Or some normalisation thereof if $\langle\phi|\varphi\rangle\ne0$. You can confirm that if $|\chi\rangle=|\phi\rangle$ or $|\chi\rangle=|\varphi\rangle$, this reduces to $|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle$ or $|\varphi\rangle \otimes |\phi\rangle$ respectively as we expect.

You can check that this is precisely what you get from applying the projection operator $|\chi\rangle\langle\chi|\otimes 1$ as a linear operator to the original state. The above argument can be repeated for a general vector in the tensored space, yielding the linearity of the tensored operator.

What about inner products of tensored states? Convince yourself that the inner product of $|\phi_1\rangle\otimes|\phi_2\rangle$ and $|\chi_1\rangle \otimes |\chi_2\rangle$ is $\langle\phi_1|\chi_1\rangle\langle\phi_2|\chi_2\rangle$.

There was the other case we mentioned -- we may have operators that are themselves entangled. What does this mean? Suppose we start with the factorable state:

$$\frac12|\phi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle+\frac12|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle+\frac12|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle+\frac12|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle$$
Then perform the observation corresponding to "are the states different from each other?" This is a projection onto the plane spanned by $(|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle,|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle)$, perpendicular to the plane spanned by $(|\phi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle,|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle)$ (confirm that this is true based on our discussion above of applying inner products to tensored states) -- we can write this as:

$$\left(|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle\right)\left(\langle\phi|\otimes\langle\varphi|\right) +
\left(|\varphi\rangle\otimes|\phi\rangle\right)\left(\langle\varphi|\otimes\langle\phi|\right)
$$
(check that this, and the system of "distributing bras" makes sense). Or alternatively:

$$|\phi\rangle\langle\phi|\otimes|\varphi\rangle\langle\varphi|+|\varphi\rangle\langle\varphi|\otimes|\phi\rangle\langle\phi|$$
One can check that applying this operator to the factorable state indeed results in the entangled state (up to normalisation). For better insight, perform the operation on the factored form of the state.


In the representation shown in the above diagram, a factorable state is one given by a single square region, while a factorable projection operator is one that selects a square region out of the maximally distributed state. With this notion, it becomes clear that an entangled operator (one that cannot be factored into operators on each Hilbert space) is the only kind of operator that projects a factorable state into an entangled state. 

We're not saying that entangled operators always project factorable states onto entangled ones -- you can just measure an irrelevant property of the system (e.g. you know each particle is either in the UK or France, and you check "are they both in India?"). But they are the only operators that can, and for any such operator, there exist factorable states that it entangles (almost by definition).

Note that we're only talking about projection operators above. We could certainly have factorable observables that enforce a partial measurement -- e.g. $X_1\otimes X_2$, which measures the product of the positions of the two particles -- but the projection operators onto each of the eigenstates of this operator are not factorable (check this).

The following rules then determine the action of our operations on the tensored Hilbert space.
  1. $(A\otimes B)(|\phi\rangle\otimes|\varphi\rangle)=(A|\phi\rangle)\otimes(B|\varphi\rangle)$ -- the tensored operators associate with the corresponding states.
  2. The tensor product of two linear operators is linear.
  3. The image of a linear combination of operators is the linear combination of the images, i.e. $(A+B)|\psi\rangle=A|\psi\rangle+B|\psi\rangle$.

From polarisation to quantum mechanics: states, observables, Born's law

Like most texts on the theory, I will motivate the mathematics of quantum mechanics from the example of polarisation -- mostly because it's a very accessible example of stuff being wavelike. From this example, we will be able to motivate: the state vector (generalising the polarisation), state vector collapse (the event of polarisation), observables and their eigenvalues (stuff like energy, number of photons, etc.), eigenstates and their orthogonality (polarisation basis), noncommuting operators and uncertainty (the noncommuting of lenses).

The key feature of quantum mechanics -- the fundamentally probabilistic nature -- comes from the following two facts, confirmed by experiments (the famous experiments here are the double-slit experiment and photoelectric effect respectively):

  • Everything is a wave -- objects behave as waves, following the superposition principle and the waves represent densities of observations at large scales.
  • Everything is a particle -- which manifests itself in the form of some stuff, like energy and momentum, coming in little quanta.

This is the principle of wave-particle duality. You may realise how this implies a probabilistic description, but the following example should make it quite clear: consider a wave of light, with energy $hf$ (so it's a single photon) polarised at angle $\theta$ to the horizontal -- and it passes through a horizontal polarising filter. Well, then the wave that passes through would be a horizontally polarised wave with energy $hf\cos^2\theta$, right?


But this is impossible, since energy levels in quantum mechanics are quantised -- you can't have $\cos^2\theta$ of a photon, you can only have integer multiples of a photon. But the fact that energy drops as $E\cos^2\theta$ is something that you can verify at your home, using sunglasses -- what the heck?

The key point is that the empirical verification of the $\cos^2\theta$ business that you can do at home is on a macroscopic level, when you have a large number of photons $E=Nhf$. So something occurs with the photons on a microscopic level such that when you try it with a large number of photons, $\cos^2\theta$ of the photons pass through.

Well, this is essentially the "definition" of probability! A single photon passes through the filter with a probability of $\cos^2\theta$ so that for a large number of photons, $\cos^2\theta$ of the photons pass through. This is a non-trivial result -- wave-particle duality makes no mentions of probability as such, it just tells us that stuff is both a particle and a wave, but this simple condition in itself implies a probabilistic, non-deterministic reality.



Similar thought experiments can illustrate the probabilistic nature of other things (the "things" in question here will soon be called "eigenstates"): position is easy -- consider a standing wave photon in a box (this can easily be constructed). This is uniformly distributed throughout the box -- so how much of the energy is in some chunk of the box?

Momentum is trickier, but shouldn't be too hard if you're familiar with Fourier transforms -- what's the analog of a "box" in momentum-space? Well, consider a concentrated pulse of light -- this can be written, via a Fourier transform, as the sum of several light waves of different momenta (i.e. frequencies), each wave with some lower energy. Taking "some chunk" of this "box" amounts to filtering some specific frequencies of the light. This can be done easily, e.g. with a colour filter -- so how much of the energy is contained in the waves with these specific momenta?

In both cases, the key point is that you can't have a fraction of the energy of the photon at these positions/momenta, so you must have a probability of measuring the photon to be in a specific range of positions or a specific range of positions -- to be in a specific region or in a specific region of momentum-space.



The fundamental point here can be made for any quantity $X$: if you can filter out the "part" of a collection of particles that has $X$ in a certain subset of its range, then on a microscopic level, is probabilistic. The act of "filtering out the parts with a certain $X$", applied to a single particle, is just the act of checking if a particle is in a certain $X$-interval, and is called measurement. Any quantity that you can measure is called an observable. 

Something like polarisation is really a form of measurement -- you're finding out whether or not the photon is in a certain polarisation $|\phi_{\parallel}\rangle$. You may have another observable, corresponding to a different polarisation -- even one that is orthogonal to the first polarisation -- $|\phi_{\perp}\rangle$ and still get that the photon is in $|\phi_\perp\rangle$. There is nothing wrong with this, as we just know beforehand that the photon is in $|\phi_\parallel\rangle$ or $|\phi_\perp\rangle$. If you perform the polarisation with $|\phi_\perp\rangle$ after the polarisation with $|\phi_\parallel\rangle$, you will find that the photon doesn't pass through, as you know for sure that the photon is not in both $|\phi_\parallel\rangle$ and $|\phi_{\perp}\rangle$.

Now, you may have certain psychological issues with this, as have many in history -- however, you might want to note that the aim of quantum mechanics is not to fix your psychological problems but to explain nature. You need to accept logical positivism and learn to shut up and calculate to be comfortable with quantum mechanics.

So whatever calculus we invent to describe these probabilistic phenomena, it is going to apply to all observables.

In our first example, the polarisation of the photon can be represented by a unit vector which we will denote as $|\psi\rangle$. The polarising filter has two special axes, represented by unit vectors $|\phi_{\parallel}\rangle$ and $|\phi_\perp\rangle$ -- these are special in the sense that an incoming photon polarised as $|\phi_{\parallel}\rangle$ or $|\phi_\perp\rangle$ will simply be scaled, by factors of 1 and 0 respectively -- so these form an eigenbasis for a certain operator.

Well, we said that the photon passes through (with polarisation $|\phi_{\parallel}\rangle$) with probability $\cos^2\theta$ -- this arises simply from considering the amplitude of $|\psi\rangle$ in the direction of $|\phi_\parallel\rangle$. So we can write the probability that the photon ends up in a state $|\phi\rangle$ as $|\langle\psi|\phi\rangle|^2$ where $\langle\psi|\phi\rangle$ is called the corresponding "probability amplitude".

This expression, $P(x=\lambda)=|\langle\psi|\phi_\lambda\rangle|^2$ is called Born's rule.

Let's get back to the eigenbasis -- what exactly is this an eigenbasis of? We said that the corresponding eigenvalues are 1 and 0, so this gives us a complete description of the operator. Note that this operator depends only on the observable (namely "number of photons in the $|\phi_{\parallel}\rangle$ direction), not on the state or any other feature of the observation. So we decide to call this operator/matrix the "observable", and its eigenvalues are the values of the observable that can be measured.

To find properties of these observables, the natural way is to note that the only feature we've really required of them is Born's rule, i.e. the probabilistic interpretation -- so we can apply the axioms of probability and see what they apply in the context of these observables.

  • $P(E)\ge 0$ -- imply that the observables are over either the reals or complexes, so that $|\langle\psi|\phi\rangle|^2\in \mathbb{R}$ in the first place. The nonnegativity then follows.
  • $P(\Omega)=1$ and $P\left(\bigcup_i E_i\right) = \sum_i P(E_i)$ for disjoint $E_i$ -- this, along with the second axiom, implies that $\sum |\langle\phi|\psi\rangle|^2 = 1=|\langle\psi|\psi\rangle|^2$ where the sum is taken over all eigenstates $|\phi\rangle$ of the operator. As this must be true for all states $|\psi\rangle$, the thing on the left must be a Pythagorean sum, so the $|\phi\rangle$s must form an orthogonal basis. This implies that all observables are normal operators.

The latter fact is very important, and can also be seen in the following way -- if you a system is in one eigenstate, it cannot possibly collapse onto another eigenstate (the probabilistic interpretation is: if you know for sure the value of the symbol is a thing, it's that thing) -- so we must have $|\langle \phi_1|\phi_2\rangle|^2=0$ for all eigenstates $|\phi_1\rangle$ and $|\phi_2\rangle$.

Another restriction we add is that the observables be not only normal, but Hermitian operators in particular, so they have real eigenvalues. This may seem an odd choice, but it makes sense, as any normal operator may be uniquely written as $X_H+iX_{AH}$ where $X_H$ and $X_{AH}$ are Hermitian, and $X_H$ and $X_{AH}$ commute, so any complex observation can be done unambiguously as two real observations. So we stick to real eigenvalues.

This also makes it essential that we allow complex operators rather than just real ones (the two choices were given to us from the first probability axiom), so that this decomposition is possible. Later, we will see concrete examples of this with commutators $[X,Y]$, which must be multiplied by $i$ to turn Hermitian. We will also see more fundamental reasons to choose complex numbers in QM.



Exercise: Show that the expected value of an observable $X$ given a state $\psi$ can be given as $\langle \psi|X|\psi \rangle$ (i.e. $\psi^*X\psi$ in conventional notation).

Exercise: Explain Born's rule with other observables, like position and momentum. Explain why it holds in general.